One PDOC said I am schizoaffective bi-polar type and gave me a medicine for 2 years that never worked or even remotely worked (seroquel) and my dad took me to see someone else and I understand that diagnosis was correct in that I have not had peranoia but the new doctor mentioned that I do not have bi-polar either. What does that leave? I did not ask her what that makes me and am now thinking about it. Is there such thing as schizophrenic by itself, without a condition of being peranoid or a mood disorder? I would ask my therapist tomorrow this question but I have a job interview that will be during my usual appointment time. I am on miracle drugs without side effects (geodon and benztropine) and feel up to working and getting off disability. Thanks for any input.
It’s possible to not have paranoia and have schizophrenia, and it’s also possible that you have schizophrenia without any mood element. If the treatment is working than good, happy for you.
You could just be schizoaffective?
Oh, that’s good news. Thank you… It is nice to be doing well. It is amazing how much better for you one doctor can be over another.
You probably just needed a change in medication, some times one med doesn’t work, we move on to the other
i am glad that u can work(job)…
work iz the best medicine and therapy so far…
Right. My meds are actually just right. I take 2, geodon and benztropine.
Very happy for you Hope you continue to recover well!
Thank you, hopefully I will land a decent job… If not I will finish my degree; I was a year and a half into Uni when I got sick. I am able to go back and finish school so I am thinking about transferring to a community college with smaller class sizes for maybe a year or so and just working part time.
What are your symptoms that you have? @L.ogan
I don’t have any with my meds, I was unable to talk (catatonic) for 5 months and had psychosis for about 2.5 to 3 months
I have schizophrenia without any mood disorder. I am paranoid though. Everyone is different.