My current psychiatrist is confused a bit, I think.
She diagnosed me with bipolar type 1, but still seems unsure about my diagnosis.
One thing that she told me and sticks out in my mind - She said that I was not presenting myself as psychotic, so therefore could not have schizoaffective.
She said that I present myself as deeply Neurotic - lots of Anxiety, worries, fears, etc… I have had psychosis before.
Maybe I am not presenting myself as psychotic because the Risperdal I am taking is putting a lid on my positive symptoms completely - ex. Hallucinations, delusions, etc…
Is there anyone here, especially with a Schizoaffective diagnosis that has zero positive symptoms - no delusions, or hallucinations at all - I was kind of perplexed by what my psychiatrist said to me
It does sound confusing. Because you’re not psychotic due to meds. I don’t understand it either. They’re saying that you can only be schizoaffective if you’re psychotic?
She said that almost everyone has some Neurosis to a degree - she threw some numbers around.
She said that if my father was about 70 percent Neurotic and Psychosis was a 100 - I ranked like 86 percent Neurotic -
Maybe she sees something that I do not
I’m in the same spot you are Wave. Was originally dx schizoaffective - depressive. But have been hallucination free for a year and half. Got disability and collect SSDI from it even. But a few weeks ago my therapist told me that on her records it says that’s not my dx. The meds are doing their job! Edit: Now I kind of feel like a fraud, except for the negative symptoms that plague me.
My view is that the whole neurotic/psychotic thing isn’t clear cut. I am definitely neurotic but the psychotic element is more ambivalent. Past history suggests a degree of mild psychosis but current dx is a non psychotic one. However my treatment is an anti psychotic. I think a lot of people grow out of acute psychosis but whether this means they are ex psychotics is a matter of debate.
How I present as a 58 year old is very different from how I presented in my early 20s.
Is an elimination of psychosis while taking antipsychotics really sufficient grounds to overturn a psychosis diagnosis?
This is the burning question, but she never denied my psychosis altogether - she thinks that I can get psychosis when manic or depressed at times.
I will question her on this further, as to why exactly she doses not feel that I fit into the schizoaffective category - telling me that I do not present myself as psychotic when I am on antipsychotics is not a very good answer
Hello wave,is your doctor experience or only had a few years psychiatry experience?If she’s experience you should probably trust her and let her diagnosed you and treat you.I think it is very possible for people with mental illness symptoms to change overtime
Go thru the post below
Anyway good luck to you,I hope that you and your doctor can get a conclusion on your dusgnosis and also the treatment.
I’ve never been completely psychotic free. I’m pretty sure my diagnosis is schizoaffective but I don’t get these doctor’s logic. Psychotic symptoms gone due to meds lets change the diagnosis?
