i’m just curious if anyone here knows about the answer to this.
off labels users are like those with autism or depression who use antipsychotics for those diseases while they dont have a psychotic disorder.
there is controversy that if a person with schizophrenia gets off antipsychotics, that they might experience psychosis just due to the withdrawal effect, and not so much the disease itself. some doctors say it’s the withdrawal effect and some say it’s the underlying disease.
but what happens to off label users when they withdraw? if they experience psychosis too, then that is a strong indicator that it’s the withdrawal effect. ***if they dont experience psychosis, then the situation is such that persons with schizophrenia who withdraw might just be predisposed to the withdrawal effect, if it’s not still the underlying disease causing it. ****
i’m mostly curious to see if my theory is right: my guess is that off label users dont experience withdrawal psychosis, and if it’s the withdrawal effect for schizophrenia withdrawal folks, they are just predisposed to it because of their disease. of course the alterantive theory could be true too, that it’s the underlying disease only causing the problem to begin with.
sometimes i wonder how fully i’m a schizophrenia person, but given i have experience the range of symptoms typical of a person with schizophrenia, and had withdrawal problems, that it’s proof positive that i shouldn’t second guess my condition so much.
i know once i made the stupid comment to my psych nurse that i was paranoid of taking medication cause antipsychotics i heard caused psychosis. then she pointed out that lots of off label users dont experience psychosis. this is a similar question but it’s different than the question at hand, because now i’m wondering about withdrawal effect differences in the two populations.