# The numbers are confusing

I’m 25 percent into dsm 5 and the numbers for psychotic, affective, neuro development, autism spectrum, depression and anxiety disorders are way over 20-25 % all together , I’m starting to think that the percent in wich mentall disorders are made are just from 100 percent of people who got a mentall illness.

MEANING : from 100% of people who have a mentall disorder they are ~0.5-1 % sz
From 100 % of people who go to the doctor for a mentall health issues around 7 percent are anxious.

And here’s why, the dsm 5 make its statistics on the percent of people who are dx with a mentall disorder in a year raported to gen pop.

So there aren’t 70.000.000 milion sz (1percent of population). There are only ~1 percent of sz people from the 100percent of people with mentall illness. You follow me?

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I don’t follow.

I think it’s explained by some people having 2 or more diagnoses .

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Unfortunately it isn’t, for having 2-3 dx for most of the different class of diasese ive read there’s around 20-80 percent chance. Usually Neuro development dx (some of them) have that high 80 percent rate.

I’m not hugely familiar with the DSM, but the numbers are either point prevalence, incidence or lifetime prevalence in the general population. Firemonkey is right. Comorbidity explains why the numbers add up to much more than you’d expect. Also, the lifetime prevalence of experiencing any kind of diagnosable mental illness is rather high.

Simple arithmetic would suggest you are wrong. It’s a bit like in a poll when you can tick multiple boxes the total percentage adds up to over 100% .

You missed the entire point I was trying toake guys, did you even read what I did write. I tried to make it simple. Here’s another try.

Based on what I’ve read until now, the totality of mentall illness would be close to 100% meaning that either everybody has some sort of mentall illness or the percent of these mi are based on the people who go to the doctor. Meaning if 100 people from a town of 1.000 go to the doctor there will be 1 sz (1 % of pop) based on the people who go to the doctor.

Until now everything good, and from then on the incredible minds at the statistic board or whatever make up a statistic

The prevalence numbers are based on the general population. I’m sure it’s explained somewhere in the manual. If they have listed the references you can just check the references and see. It’s not prevalence of the population of mentally ill people. That would be overcomplicated and less informative, and the vast majority of prevalence studies are on the general population.

Multiple comorbidities (more than 2 diagnoses) are common, and that probably explains why you don’t get the numbers to make sense. Also, the numbers could be too large due to methodological issues.

Check the numbers if you’d like. Lifetime prevalence of sz is 0.5-1% in the general population, and so couldn’t be 0.5-1% in the population of mentally ill people unless everyone were mentally ill.

If the numbers are right, meaning from the statistics that most people suffer from a mentall illness or will suffer from one, mostly an eazy one, I was not ready even if I mostly knew everybody was crazy.

If you read dsm 5 you can see that almost all of the diaseses have a criteria that say that an illness only applies when it produce “major proffesional/academic/social or family problems”

So it isn’t a wonder that most people can easily fit the criteria for a mi but that criteria doesn’t apply so most doesn’t seek help and they shouldn’t as long as they’re functional

I just downloaded the DSM 5 and it specifies when it refers to prevalence in clinical samples. When not specified the numbers refer to the general population. Take this sentence, for instance:

“Hoarding disorder affects both
males and females, but some epidemiological studies have reported a significantly greater
prevalence among males. This contrasts with clinical samples, which are predominantly
female.”

Clearly, when not specified, “prevalence” means “prevalence in the general population”, which is also the standard meaning of prevalence in everything else I’ve read.

If you search for “clinical sample” it will become clear to you. There are also many, many more mentions of prevalences in specifically the general population than there are of prevalences in clinical samples.

Also, it seems lifetime prevalences of any mental illness are mostly somewhere between 25% and 50%. If loss of function is specified as a requirement for the diagnosis, then the criteria are not met if there is no loss of function.

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