Are there people that only suffer from delusions and paranoia, never hearing voices or having negative or cognitive deficit?
I have no positive symptoms now, but when I was psychotic, I only had delusions and paranoia. No hallucinations of any kind, including voices. I do have some negative symptoms now though.
Have your delusions and paranioa faded over the years or are they still the same or worse when you are unmedicated?
Couldn’t tell you. I am still on Ap’s. I have not gone completely off meds in years, so I can’t say what I would be like on no medication. I can tell you that, when I tried to reduce meds further recently, I felt I had to go back up because I felt some paranoia creeping in. Have not had any delusions in years.
How long have you been on AP?
Well, in the beginning I resisted taking them and was not on them consistently, so I would say that I’ve been on AP consistently about 4 to 5 years.
If you were to include time that I was not taking them consistently, probably closer to 6 or 7 years. Just estimates, I’m not that great with dates.
My pdoc says every five to ten years male hormones change and the brain slows down in terms of dopamine production. That’s why a quarter to a third of people with Schizophrenia completely recover
Recover with meds or without meds?
For me it was just ideas of reference. No hallucinations. Some cognitive deficits and negatives. These are not as bad. I didn’t completely believe ideas of reference I had. And they tended to get better on their own.
I might have had unspecified psychosis. Not schizophrenia.
Fifty percent of schizophrenic’s symptoms improve with or without treatment. Medication does not cure illness, as you probably already know, it’s a band aid, it’s hides the symptoms. With that said, twenty five to thirty three percent of the fifty do reach “complete recovery”
Afaik thats with meds. My pdoc told me only 5% make it without any symptoms and without meds.
Afaik? Or do you mean I think*?
As far as I know, I mean according to studies I read online.
For men, as we age our positive symptoms fade and some people reach residual stage. Those who reach the residual stage are the quarter to one third of people who have recovered of the fifty percent whose symptoms improve
Not sure about this, I mean I wish this is true but how does lower testosterone means lower symptoms? Is that what you’re trying to say?
Not lower testosterone, lower hormones in general i.e, dopamine, seratonine, testosterone, estergen, etc.
@Aziz I can only assume your symptoms compared to your first break to now is different. It’s probably less intense, if I’m not wrong?
Not sure, its been 10 years since I am on meds but I was on different meds and doses. With time I had to increase dosage and switch to a more effective med because I always had symptoms until 2020 when I was put on 5mg risperidone. As a result my negative and cognitive symptoms got a lot worse as there is more dopamine blockade I believe.
There are members on the forum who are 77+y.o. and who are still on meds, i think one of them still experience symptoms. I heard that yes positive symptoms tend to get slightly better with age but negative and cognitive symptoms get worse. I have seen no solid proofs though.
Those people who are on meds at that age are a twofold:
1: They had a chronic/ sever case of schizophrenia on the spectrum and I wouldn’t be surprised if they were probably institutionalized
2: They have spent almost all their life on meds and feel comfortable spending the remainder of their life on medication
Too add, if you are part of the fifty percent whose symptoms have improved within that ten years span, your episodes or symptoms are less sever than from your first episode(s)
I’m not sure about negative symptoms anymore. You are right that this used to be what most people thought, but I have seen articles that dispute that this is always the case. I think it is up in the air at this point.
Well if its true that dopamine get reduced with age, that means negative and cognitive symptoms get worse with age.